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SC-900 Mock exam :Microsoft SC-900 Exam Preparation and Practice (Microsoft Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate) Answers 2025

1. Question 1

Which two additional forms of authentication are available in Azure AD for MFA from any device? (Select all)

❌ Fingerprint recognition
Text message (SMS)
❌ Facial recognition
Voice call

Explanation: SMS and voice calls are device-agnostic MFA methods that work from any phone/device. Fingerprint/face usually require device support (platform biometrics).


2. Question 2

Which services can act as SIEM and SOAR?

❌ Azure Monitor
❌ Microsoft Bastion
❌ Microsoft Defender
Microsoft Sentinel

Explanation: Microsoft Sentinel is the cloud-native SIEM + SOAR offering. (Azure Monitor is monitoring; Defender products protect workloads.)


3. Question 3

Which are considered pillars of CASB? (Select all)

Visibility
❌ Accessibility
Compliance
❌ Integrity

Explanation: CASB pillars commonly include Visibility, Compliance, Data Security / Control, and Threat Protection.


4. Question 4

In shared security model for SaaS, which is always the customer’s responsibility?

❌ Applications
❌ Operating system
❌ Authentication functionality
User accounts

Explanation: In SaaS the provider manages the app/OS; customers are responsible for user accounts and their management.


5. Question 5

Which pillar processes identity data and determines access?

❌ Administration
❌ Audit
Authorization
❌ Authentication

Explanation: Authorization evaluates identity attributes/claims to determine access levels (authentication simply verifies identity).


6. Question 6

Which elements feature in Microsoft’s six privacy principles? (Select all)

Benefits you
No content-based targeting
❌ Freedom of information
❌ No legal protection

Explanation: Microsoft’s privacy principles include user benefit and restrictions like no content-based ad targeting; the other options are not part of the six principles.


7. Question 7

What type of control is used in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager?

❌ Application control
Microsoft-managed control
❌ Third-party control
❌ Micro control

Explanation: Compliance Manager shows Microsoft-managed controls (and customer-managed and third-party where applicable); “Microsoft-managed control” is the type listed.


8. Question 8

Goal of Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle?

❌ Visualize your data
❌ Plot your data
❌ Store your data
Know your data

Explanation: Purview’s lifecycle focus is on understanding / knowing your data across its lifecycle.


9. Question 9

Broad areas of compliance? (Select all)

❌ Public risk
❌ Property risk
Privacy risk
Legal risk

Explanation: Compliance commonly covers privacy and legal/regulatory risk areas.


10. Question 10

To identify credit cards in customer data use:

❌ Classification labels
Sensitive information types
❌ Retention labels
❌ Content explorer

Explanation: Sensitive information types (e.g., Credit Card Number) are the detection mechanism for PII/PCI content.


11. Question 11

When would you employ information barriers?

❌ To prevent sensitive company data from leaking
❌ To preserve company IP
To prevent different departments from sharing information
❌ To prevent roles without sufficient permissions from accessing sensitive information

Explanation: Information barriers are used to prevent collaboration/communication between groups (e.g., legal ↔ finance). They enforce separation of groups’ communications.


12. Question 12

Which feature allows you to create a role with set permissions that align with common tasks?

Templated roles
❌ Conditional Access
❌ Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
❌ Role-based access control (RBAC)

Explanation: “Templated roles” (built-in role templates) let you create roles aligned to common tasks. (RBAC is the overall model but the question asks the feature that creates task-aligned roles.)


13. Question 13

Which of the following are sign-on risks? (Select all)

Atypical travel
❌ Role
Protocol attack
Anonymous IP address

Explanation: Atypical travel and anonymous IP / protocol anomalies are examples of sign-in risk signals; “role” is not a sign-on risk.


14. Question 14

Conditional Access template categories (select all that apply)

Protect administrator
Secure foundations
Service principal
❌ Highest privilege

Explanation: Template categories include protections for administrators, secure foundations, and service principals; “Highest privilege” is not a standard template category.


15. Question 15

Primary purpose of Content Explorer in Microsoft 365?

Content search and discovery
❌ Activity monitoring and analysis
❌ Content classification and labeling
❌ DLP policy enforcement

Explanation: Content Explorer helps locate and search content across the estate for review and discovery.


16. Question 16

Which service monitors communication compliance internally?

❌ Microsoft Service Trust portal
Microsoft Purview
❌ Microsoft Cloud Security Benchmark (MCSB)
❌ Microsoft Defender

Explanation: Microsoft Purview includes Communication Compliance features to monitor internal communications.


17. Question 17

What does the compliance score evaluate?

❌ Metric about ability to reach customers
❌ Speed of deploying security
Actions taken to meet industry & security standards
❌ Complexity of security measures

Explanation: Compliance score reflects an organization’s actions toward meeting standards and recommendations.


18. Question 18

Plot all locations a document has been in — this is known as:

❌ Data classification
❌ Data discovery
❌ Data landscape
Data lineage

Explanation: Data lineage tracks where data has been and how it flows/transforms.


19. Question 19

Service to enforce communication compliance in Teams?

Microsoft Purview
❌ Microsoft Sentinel
❌ Microsoft Exchange Online
❌ Microsoft Defender

Explanation: Purview has communication compliance policies to enforce rules on Teams messages.


20. Question 20

Used to gather information in a legal case?

❌ Communication Compliance
❌ Activity Explorer
eDiscovery
❌ Content Explorer

Explanation: eDiscovery is the toolset for legal holds, search and export for legal proceedings.


21. Question 21

Provides a secure means of presenting an endpoint to the public?

❌ Microsoft Defender
Azure Bastion
❌ Microsoft Purview
❌ Azure Firewall

Explanation: Azure Bastion securely exposes RDP/SSH to VMs without public IPs or direct exposure.


22. Question 22

Services most closely connected with RDP and SSH?

Azure Bastion
❌ Microsoft Defender
❌ Azure Identity Protection (AIP)
❌ Microsoft Sentinel

Explanation: Azure Bastion is specifically built for secure RDP/SSH connectivity to VMs.


23. Question 23

Which are created expressly for data governance?

Azure Blueprints
❌ Azure Active Directory
Azure Policy
❌ Azure Identity and Access control

Explanation: Azure Policy and Blueprints are governance tools used to define and enforce organizational policies and deployments.


24. Question 24

Which reflects Microsoft’s Insider risk management workflow?

❌ Alerts, triage, investigate, action, policy
❌ Action, policy, alerts, triage, investigate
Policy, alerts, triage, investigate, action
❌ Investigate, action, policy, alerts, triage

Explanation: Workflow starts with policies, then alerts, triage, investigation, and actions.


25. Question 25

True or False: Admin would choose an ARM template over an Azure Blueprint to enforce templated standardized approach?

❌ True
False

Explanation: Azure Blueprints provide a higher-level templated approach (policies, RBAC, ARM artifacts) for standardized deployments; ARM templates alone are infra-as-code but Blueprints add governance.


26. Question 26

Max number of network groups that can be associated with an NSG?

❌ 2
❌ 3
1
❌ 4

Explanation: A subnet or NIC can be associated with one NSG at a time.


27. Question 27

Function of Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) in Defender for Endpoint?

❌ Adds protection to storage accounts
❌ Regulates access to malicious IPs/domains/URLs
Brings threat detection of applications
❌ Provides additional layer on DNS

Explanation: ASR rules control and detect risky application behaviors—reducing attack surface and detecting malicious app activity.


28. Question 28

Best description of a Control domain?

❌ Area where SOC is housed
A conceptual framework that categorizes security-related features/settings in the Microsoft ecosystem
❌ Central planning division of security team
❌ Means Active Directory communicates

Explanation: A Control Domain is a conceptual categorization of security controls and settings.


29. Question 29

Which service provides a secure score to identify how secure a resource is?

❌ Microsoft Sentinel
Microsoft Defender
❌ Azure Bastion
❌ Security Operations Center

Explanation: Microsoft Defender (and Microsoft Secure Score within Defender/365 security centers) provides secure/compliance scoring.


30. Question 30

Which aligns with Zero Trust?

❌ Responsibility of protecting a network should be shared
❌ Authentication/authorization are a means of protecting a network
That an intruder has already breached the system.
❌ Internal systems should be open to all only upon verification

Explanation: Zero Trust assumes breach (never trust, always verify); architecture is built around that premise.


31. Question 31

How many keys in asymmetric encryption?

❌ 3
❌ 4
2
❌ 1

Explanation: Asymmetric encryption uses a pair: public key and private key.


32. Question 32

Features present in Azure AD but absent in AD DS? (Select all)

❌ Access management
Integration with SaaS applications
Support for Modern authentication methods
❌ Identity management

Explanation: Azure AD is built for SaaS integration and modern auth (OAuth/OIDC); AD DS provides traditional on-prem identity management.


33. Question 33

Correct order in Insider risk workflow?

❌ Alerts, Investigate, Action, Policy, Triage
❌ Triage, Policy, Action, Investigate, Alerts
Policy, Alerts, Triage, Investigate, Action
❌ Action, Triage, Investigate, Alerts, Policy

Explanation: Same as Q24—policy → alerts → triage → investigate → actions.


34. Question 34

Azure Active Directory is best described as:

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
❌ SaaS
❌ IaaS
❌ PaaS

Explanation: Azure AD is a cloud identity service (IDaaS) providing authentication/authorization features.


35. Question 35

Which could flag a high-risk sign-in?

❌ Flagged for Teams comments
❌ Often work from home
You log in from an unusual location.
❌ Often log in late

Explanation: Unusual/geographic sign-in location is a classic high-risk signal.


36. Question 36

To keep passwords same on-prem and cloud?

❌ Federated Access
❌ Azure AD Connect
Azure AD Password Hash Synchronization
❌ Azure AD Pass-through Authentication

Explanation: Password Hash Sync (via Azure AD Connect) ensures password parity between on-prem and Azure AD.


37. Question 37

Valid second form of identification after face recognition (select all):

Fingerprint
Registered device
❌ Iris scan
PIN

Explanation: Fingerprint, registered device (device-based auth) and PIN are typical MFA second factors. Iris is not generally supported by all auth flows.


38. Question 38

True or False: User can reset password without admin intervention?

True
❌ False

Explanation: Self-Service Password Reset (SSPR) allows users to reset passwords without admin help when configured.


39. Question 39

True or False: Microsoft uses email/chat/files/personal content to target advertising.

❌ True
False

Explanation: Microsoft states they do not use customer content (email, chat, files) for targeted advertising.


40. Question 40

True or False: Azure Traffic Manager operates at the network application layer and uses HTTP/HTTPS properties for routing.

❌ True
False

Explanation: Traffic Manager is DNS-based traffic routing (global DNS load balancing); Azure Front Door and Application Gateway operate at HTTP/HTTPS/application layer.


41. Question 41

True or False: In Purview Records management, a regulatory label can be easily removed once marked as regulatory record.

❌ True
False

Explanation: Regulatory labels are intended to be permanent/immutable to satisfy compliance — they are not easily removed.


42. Question 42

True or False: Purview only provides tools for labeling but not classification.

❌ True
False

Explanation: Microsoft Purview provides both classification and labeling tools.


43. Question 43

Acceptable means of validating in Microsoft Authentication App? (Select all)

❌ Password
Pin
❌ Retina Scan
Fingerprint

Explanation: Authenticator app supports device PIN and biometric (fingerprint/face) verifications; not retina scans or traditional passwords inside the app.


44. Question 44

Service that vets passwords to reduce poor password choices?

Azure AD Password Protection
❌ Sensitivity labels
❌ Azure Password Protection Proxy
❌ A globally banned password list

Explanation: Azure AD Password Protection enforces banned password lists and custom banned terms to prevent weak passwords.


45. Question 45

Actions by Conditional Access policy (Select all)

Block access
Request multi-factor authentication (MFA)
❌ Requesting the user complete a captcha
❌ Rerouting the user to another log-in request

Explanation: Conditional Access can block sign-ins and require MFA; it does not present captchas or reroute to different login flows.


46. Question 46

Which are service-specific roles in Azure AD? (Select all)

Global Administrator
Exchange Administrator
Teams Administrator
Intune Administrator

Explanation: Azure AD includes many built-in service administrator roles (Exchange, Teams, Intune, Global Admin, etc.).


47. Question 47

Which description best describes Microsoft Purview Policy?

❌ Organizes/manages metadata
❌ Provides a view of data estate
❌ Facilitates secure collaborative sharing
Establishes and enforces policies governing data

Explanation: Purview Policy is for defining/enforcing data policies across the estate.


48. Question 48

Which are DDoS attack types? (Select all)

❌ Dictionary Attack
❌ Man-in-the-middle Attack
Volumetric Attack
Protocol Attack

Explanation: DDoS categories include volumetric, protocol, and application-layer attacks. Dictionary and MITM are different attack types.


49. Question 49

Which Defender service best suits securing SaaS applications?

❌ Microsoft Defender for Storage
❌ Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Microsoft Defender for cloud apps
❌ Microsoft Defender for Office 365

Explanation: Defender for Cloud Apps (MCAS) is the CASB/Microsoft Defender product focused on SaaS app security.


50. Question 50

Which pillar creates and manages user identities?

Administration
❌ Audit
❌ Authentication
❌ Authorization

Explanation: Administration covers creating and managing user identities (account lifecycle, provisioning). Authentication verifies identity; authorization governs access.


🧾 Final Summary Table

Q# Correct Answer(s)
1 Text message (SMS); Voice call
2 Microsoft Sentinel
3 Visibility; Compliance
4 User accounts
5 Authorization
6 Benefits you; No content-based targeting
7 Microsoft-managed control
8 Know your data
9 Privacy risk; Legal risk
10 Sensitive information types
11 Prevent different departments sharing info
12 Templated roles
13 Atypical travel; Protocol attack; Anonymous IP
14 Protect administrator; Secure foundations; Service principal
15 Content search & discovery
16 Microsoft Purview
17 Actions taken to meet industry & security standards
18 Data lineage
19 Microsoft Purview
20 eDiscovery
21 Azure Bastion
22 Azure Bastion
23 Azure Blueprints; Azure Policy
24 Policy → Alerts → Triage → Investigate → Action
25 False
26 1
27 Brings threat detection of applications
28 Conceptual framework categorizing security features
29 Microsoft Defender
30 Assume intruder already breached system
31 2
32 Integration with SaaS apps; Support for modern auth
33 Policy → Alerts → Triage → Investigate → Action
34 Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
35 Unusual location sign-in
36 Azure AD Password Hash Synchronization
37 Fingerprint; Registered device; PIN
38 True
39 False
40 False
41 False
42 False
43 Pin; Fingerprint
44 Azure AD Password Protection
45 Block access; Request MFA
46 Global Admin; Exchange Admin; Teams Admin; Intune Admin
47 Establish & enforce data policies
48 Volumetric Attack; Protocol Attack
49 Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
50 Administration