Graded Quiz: CompTIA Security+ Mock Exam :Cybersecurity Assessment: CompTIA Security+ & CYSA+ (IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate) Answers 2025
1. Question 1
A coordinated attack stealing proprietary software and client data by a well-organized group with geopolitical motives. Which threat actor?
❌ Cybercriminal organization
❌ Insider threat
✅ Nation-state
❌ Script kiddie
Explanation: The sophistication and geopolitical motives point to a nation-state actor.
2. Question 2
User clicks link, downloads malware that monitors activities. Which malware?
❌ Virus
✅ Spyware
❌ Worm
❌ Ransomware
Explanation: Spyware monitors user activity and exfiltrates information stealthily.
3. Question 3
Financial analyst notices unusual transactions — best initial step?
❌ Ignore the activity
✅ Investigate the transactions further
❌ Approve the transactions
❌ Change account passwords
Explanation: Investigate to gather facts and determine if fraud occurred before taking remediation steps.
4. Question 4
Secure communication over open network — which tunneling protocol?
✅ TLS
❌ SASE
❌ 802.1X
❌ NGFW
Explanation: TLS (transport layer security) secures communications over open networks (transport encryption).
5. Question 5
Primary focus for capacity planning to recover quickly after natural disasters?
❌ Resource availability
❌ Infrastructure upgrades
✅ Regular system testing
❌ Compliance regulations
Explanation: Regular testing (DR drills) ensures recovery procedures work when needed.
6. Question 6
Risk to manage when using IaC?
❌ Inability to patch quickly
✅ Configuration drift
❌ Limited flexibility for scaling
❌ High resource consumption
Explanation: IaC can still suffer configuration drift if deployments/changes are not managed consistently.
7. Question 7
Change management scenario — which component addressed?
❌ Legacy applications
❌ Documentation
✅ Impact analysis and backout plan
❌ Testing results
Explanation: The scenario explicitly mentions impact analysis and a backout plan.
8. Question 8
HIPAA audit — which compliance reporting is most relevant?
❌ Internal compliance reporting
❌ Financial reporting
✅ External compliance reporting
❌ Performance reporting
Explanation: External auditors/regulators require external compliance reporting for HIPAA adherence.
9. Question 9
Data breach exposed payment info — which data source should be reviewed first?
❌ Firewall logs
✅ Application logs
❌ OS-specific security logs
❌ Network logs
Explanation: Payment data exposure often stems from application-level flaws; app logs reveal exploitation paths.
10. Question 10
Website defaced after CMS vulnerability exploit — what type of attack?
❌ Phishing
❌ Malware infection
✅ Web-based attack
❌ SQL Injection
Explanation: Defacement via CMS vulnerability is a web-based attack (could include XSS/remote file upload).
11. Question 11
Perpetrators traced to organized crime syndicate stealing millions — primary motivation?
❌ Philosophical beliefs
✅ Financial gain
❌ Revenge
❌ Ethical reasons
Explanation: Organized crime focuses on financial profit.
12. Question 12
Post simulated breach, weaknesses in communication strategy — what to prioritize?
❌ Recovery
❌ Analysis
❌ Eradication
✅ Training
Explanation: Communication weaknesses are addressed by training and exercises to improve coordination.
13. Question 13
Best protocol for SSO?
✅ Security Assertions Markup Language (SAML)
❌ Kerberos
❌ Open Authorization (OAuth)
❌ LDAP
Explanation: SAML is widely used for enterprise SSO between identity providers and service providers.
14. Question 14
Pen test in sandbox with architecture details — what type?
❌ Known environment
✅ Partially known environment
❌ Passive reconnaissance
❌ Offensive penetration testing
Explanation: Access to architecture details suggests a partially known (white/gray box) testing scenario.
15. Question 15
Encrypting patient records in DB — primary reason?
❌ Improve data access
❌ Speed up data retrieval
❌ Enhance data integrity
✅ Ensure data confidentiality
Explanation: Encryption protects confidentiality of stored patient records.
16. Question 16
Access control vestibule, cameras, sensors — what type of controls?
❌ Managerial controls
✅ Physical controls
❌ Technical controls
❌ Operational controls
Explanation: Badges, cameras, and sensors are physical security controls.
17. Question 17
Catch vulnerabilities early in SDLC — which method?
❌ Rescanning vulnerabilities
❌ Incident response plan
❌ Penetration testing
✅ Static code analysis
Explanation: Static code analysis (SAST) catches vulnerabilities during development before deployment.
18. Question 18
Keep data within a country — which concept?
✅ Data sovereignty
❌ Encryption
❌ Obfuscation
❌ Data classification
Explanation: Data sovereignty refers to data subject to specific jurisdictional residence requirements.
19. Question 19
Policy-driven approach dynamically adjusts access based on risk — which Zero Trust feature?
❌ Data encryption
❌ Implicit trust zones
❌ Role-based access
✅ Adaptive identity verification
Explanation: Adaptive identity (context-aware) adjusts access based on current risk signals.
20. Question 20
BYOD separation of company vs personal data — which approach?
❌ Remote wipe capabilities
❌ Full device encryption
❌ VPN usage
✅ Containerization
Explanation: Containerization creates a secure segregated workspace for corporate data on personal devices.
21. Question 21
Access control model based on roles for university?
❌ Discretionary access control (DAC)
❌ Mandatory access control (MAC)
✅ Role-based access control (RBAC)
❌ Rule-based access control
Explanation: RBAC assigns permissions based on roles (students, faculty, staff).
22. Question 22
Ensure critical patient care systems remain functional during power outage — strategy to enhance high availability?
❌ Geographic dispersion
✅ Clustering
❌ Load balancing
❌ Site considerations
Explanation: Clustering (redundant nodes) helps maintain service availability locally during outages.
(Note: geographic dispersion and load balancing also help HA, but clustering is primary strategy for local continuity.)
23. Question 23
Method to determine loss for a single breach?
✅ Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
❌ Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
❌ Risk Threshold
❌ Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Explanation: SLE estimates loss from one occurrence.
24. Question 24
Surge of malicious traffic overwhelming web servers — attack type?
❌ Credential harvesting
❌ Ransomware attack
✅ Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS)
❌ Man-in-the-middle
Explanation: DDoS floods resources to cause service unavailability.
25. Question 25
Database compromised by SQL injection — which vulnerability type?
❌ Malware intrusion
❌ Misconfigured settings
❌ Network hardware
✅ Web-based
Explanation: SQL injection is a web application vulnerability.
26. Question 26
SSL/TLS between players and servers — which type of encryption?
❌ File-level encryption
❌ Full-disk encryption
✅ Transport encryption
❌ Symmetric encryption
Explanation: SSL/TLS secures data in transit — transport encryption.
27. Question 27
Asset classification approach for computer labs?
❌ Use single classification
✅ Develop multi-tier classification based on sensitivity and usage
❌ Classify only during annual audit
❌ Ignore classification
Explanation: Multi-tier classification enables appropriate controls per sensitivity.
28. Question 28
Post-exercise review focus after response exercise?
✅ Lessons learned
❌ Containment
❌ Detection
Explanation: Post-exercise reviews should capture lessons learned to improve readiness.
29. Question 29
Determining how much risk willing to accept?
❌ Risk tolerance
✅ Risk appetite
❌ Risk register
❌ Risk threshold
Explanation: Risk appetite is the overall amount of risk an organization is willing to pursue/accept.
30. Question 30
Incident response phase that focuses on learning from drill?
❌ Preparation
❌ Detection
✅ Lessons learned
❌ Containment
Explanation: Lessons learned (post-incident review) improves future responses.
31. Question 31
Cannot immediately patch critical vulnerability — valid temporary approach?
✅ Segmentation
❌ Leave the vulnerability as is
✅ Apply compensating controls (Either segmentation or compensating controls acceptable — primary is compensating controls)
Explanation: If patching delayed, apply compensating controls (segmentation, access restrictions) to reduce risk.
32. Question 32
Protect traffic between sensitive internal services — most effective approach?
❌ Web Application Firewall (WAF)
✅ Logical segmentation
❌ Layer 4 firewall
❌ Jump server
Explanation: Logical segmentation (microsegmentation/VLANs) isolates traffic between internal services.
33. Question 33
Decoy servers intentionally left vulnerable — what technology?
❌ Firewall
❌ Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
❌ Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
✅ Honeypot
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers to study behavior without risking production systems.
34. Question 34
During procurement of new system, what to focus on for security?
❌ Choosing least expensive
❌ Prioritizing marketing claims
❌ Waiting until after implementation
✅ Conduct vendor security audits and review system security features
Explanation: Vendor security audits and reviewing security features during procurement mitigates future risk.
35. Question 35
Transforming passwords into unique, fixed-length strings — which practice?
❌ Tokenization
❌ Encryption
✅ Hashing
❌ Key exchange
Explanation: Hashing transforms passwords into irreversible fixed-length digests.
36. Question 36
SCADA systems security risk most relevant?
✅ Cyber-attacks on legacy components
❌ Increased operating costs
❌ Physical isolation of systems
❌ Difficulty in scaling operations
Explanation: SCADA often includes legacy, unpatched components vulnerable to attacks.
37. Question 37
Pen test without prior knowledge of infra — what type?
✅ Unknown environment
❌ Partially known
❌ Known environment
❌ Defensive penetration testing
Explanation: No prior knowledge corresponds to a black-box/unknown environment test.
38. Question 38
Key security challenge in microservices architecture?
❌ Inability to automate
✅ Complex service interconnections
❌ High costs
❌ Lack of scalability
Explanation: Microservices introduce complex inter-service communication and attack surface to secure.
39. Question 39
COPE model — essential consideration?
❌ Allow any app
❌ No security measures
✅ Configure devices to enforce security policies while allowing personal use
❌ Require corporate-only apps
Explanation: COPE balances corporate control with personal use; enforce security while permitting personal apps.
40. Question 40
Malicious USB drive compromise — what threat vector?
❌ Image-based
✅ Removable device
❌ Vulnerable software
❌ Voice call
Explanation: USB drives are removable media threat vectors delivering malware or exfiltration.
41. Question 41
Integrate security checks during development to prevent issues reaching production — what method?
❌ Rescanning
✅ Static analysis
❌ Bug bounty program
❌ Dynamic analysis
Explanation: Static analysis (SAST) integrated into CI/CD identifies code issues before runtime.
42. Question 42
Simultaneous logins from different geographic locations — indicator?
❌ Account lockout
❌ Resource consumption
✅ Impossible travel
❌ Blocked content
Explanation: Impossible travel indicates logins from widely separated locations in short timeframes.
43. Question 43
Public cloud service with improper access controls — what vulnerability?
✅ Cloud-specific vulnerability
❌ Secure cloud configuration
❌ User error
❌ Insufficient backup
Explanation: Misconfigured cloud access is a cloud-specific security vulnerability (config/config error).
44. Question 44
Sensitive data transmitted over unsecured network — primary risk?
❌ Compliance violations
✅ Data interception
❌ Enhanced collaboration
❌ Increased transmission speed
Explanation: Unencrypted transmission risks interception (eavesdropping).
45. Question 45
Post-phishing evaluation meeting focus?
❌ Preparation
✅ Lessons learned
❌ Detection
❌ Containment
Explanation: The evaluation should identify lessons learned to improve future defences.
46. Question 46
Significant increase in failed login attempts — immediate response?
❌ Ignore the attempts
❌ Monitor for additional attempts
✅ Implement a temporary lockdown
❌ Increase user password complexity
Explanation: Temporary lockdown (block IPs/lock accounts) prevents brute-force compromise while investigating.
47. Question 47
Employee selling confidential client data — what threat actor?
❌ Organized crime
❌ Hacktivist
✅ Insider threat
❌ Nation-state
Explanation: An employee exfiltrating data is an insider threat.
48. Question 48
Independent auditor examining HIPAA compliance — what type of audit?
❌ Risk assessment audit
❌ Internal compliance audit
✅ External compliance audit
❌ Regulatory audit
Explanation: Independent auditor performing HIPAA check is conducting an external compliance audit.
49. Question 49
Ensure compliance with privacy laws across jurisdictions — primary focus?
✅ Data subject rights
❌ Ownership disputes
❌ External monitoring
❌ Data automation
Explanation: Cross-jurisdiction privacy focuses on rights (consent, access, erasure) of data subjects.
50. Question 50
Restrict access to proprietary algorithms based on roles — most effective strategy?
✅ Permission restrictions
❌ Data masking
❌ Tokenization
❌ Encryption
Explanation: Fine-grained permission (access control) restricts who can view/use algorithms (though encryption also helpful).
51. Question 51
Maintain service during network appliance failure while addressing security — which failure mode?
❌ Inline monitoring
✅ Fail-open (careful: security vs availability tradeoff)
❌ Port security
❌ Fail-closed
Explanation: Fail-open allows continued service if an appliance fails (availability prioritized); organizations must weigh security implications.
(Note: choice depends on context — banking often prefers fail-closed for security; question asks continued service while addressing security, so fail-open fits.)
52. Question 52
Clause to include to review vendor security practices?
❌ Conflict of interest
❌ Supply chain analysis
✅ Right-to-audit clause
❌ Master Service Agreement (MSA)
Explanation: Right-to-audit enables reviewing vendor security posture and compliance.
53. Question 53
Motion detection systems with cameras and patrols — which controls?
❌ Operational & compensating
❌ Technical & corrective
✅ Physical and detective controls
❌ Managerial & preventive
Explanation: Motion detectors and cameras are physical controls and detect intrusion (detective).
54. Question 54
Ensure only compliant devices connect — which measure?
✅ Network Access Control (NAC)
❌ Encryption protocols
❌ IDS/IPS
❌ Email security gateways
Explanation: NAC enforces posture checks and grants access only to compliant devices.
55. Question 55
Purpose of independent third-party audit in software development?
❌ To enhance product features
❌ To improve user satisfaction
✅ To assess regulatory compliance
❌ To ensure competitive advantage
Explanation: Third-party audits evaluate adherence to regulatory/security standards.
56. Question 56
Critical element to ensure integrity of root cause analysis?
✅ Chain of custody
❌ Digital forensics
❌ Threat hunting
❌ Reporting
Explanation: Chain of custody preserves evidence integrity for forensic analysis and legal use.
57. Question 57
Zero Trust principle being implemented with continuous authentication?
❌ Open public access
❌ Role-based access
✅ Continuous verification
❌ Implicit trust zones
Explanation: Continuous verification ensures no implicit trust; users are continuously authenticated and authorized.
58. Question 58
Share non-sensitive patient info while protecting sensitive data — which method?
✅ Data masking
❌ Encryption
❌ Segmentation
❌ Hashing
Explanation: Data masking reveals safe, de-identified data for research while protecting sensitive fields.
59. Question 59
Consequence of non-compliance with consumer protection laws?
✅ Fines
❌ Expanded market access
❌ Enhanced brand loyalty
❌ Increased operational efficiency
Explanation: Non-compliance commonly incurs financial penalties (fines).
60. Question 60
Gather threat intel to track new attacks — which method to prioritize for underground threats?
❌ OSINT
❌ Penetration testing
✅ Dark web intelligence
❌ System audits
Explanation: Dark web monitoring reveals chatter and marketplaces used by attackers.
61. Question 61
Activity ensuring security team promptly notified of unusual activity?
❌ Scanning systems
❌ Log aggregation
❌ Reporting
✅ Alerting
Explanation: Alerting sends real-time notifications based on detection triggers.
62. Question 62
Evaluate vendor security practices before selection — how?
❌ Penetration testing
✅ Evidence of internal audits
❌ Supply chain analysis
❌ Vendor monitoring
Explanation: Requesting evidence of audits shows vendor’s internal compliance and controls. (Pen testing may be desirable but evidence of audits is primary preselection evidence.)
63. Question 63
Primary focus of SIEM?
✅ Aggregating and analyzing logs
❌ Archiving logs
❌ Scanning for vulnerabilities
❌ Quarantining threats
Explanation: SIEM collects, correlates, and analyzes logs to detect security events.
64. Question 64
Strict encryption policies but breach due to employee sending unencrypted files — main issue?
❌ Insufficient encryption
❌ Outdated technology
✅ Lack of employee training
❌ Poor data management
Explanation: Human error (lack of training) caused unencrypted transmission despite policies.
65. Question 65
ICS deployment major security concern?
✅ Inability to patch critical vulnerabilities
❌ High cost
❌ Difficulty scaling
❌ Lack of third-party support
Explanation: ICS/OT devices often cannot be patched quickly without impacting operations.
66. Question 66
Text message claiming to be bank asking verify info — what attack?
✅ Smishing
❌ Spoofing
❌ Phishing
❌ Vishing
Explanation: Smishing is phishing via SMS/text messages.
67. Question 67
Cloud provider agreement to prioritize to understand services and performance metrics?
❌ Work Order (WO)
❌ Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
✅ Service-Level Agreement (SLA)
❌ Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
Explanation: SLAs define service scope, performance, and metrics.
68. Question 68
Secure baseline for DB servers — critical action?
❌ Keep default configurations
✅ Disable unnecessary services and configure security settings appropriately
❌ Install updates without review
❌ Only apply patches on major vulnerabilities
Explanation: Hardening baseline by disabling unneeded services and secure configuration is essential.
69. Question 69
Detect threats on endpoints and analyze user activity — what to deploy?
❌ Firewall
❌ Antivirus
❌ Web filter
✅ EDR/XDR
Explanation: Endpoint Detection & Response / Extended Detection and Response provide endpoint threat detection and user behavior analytics.
70. Question 70
Smartphone app generating TOTP represents which factor?
✅ Something you have
❌ Something you are
❌ Somewhere you are
❌ Something you know
Explanation: TOTP app tied to a device is a possession factor (something you have).
71. Question 71
Employee uses personal device with no security — what risk?
❌ Compliance with policies
❌ Enhanced accessibility
❌ Improved morale
✅ Increased risk of data breaches
Explanation: Unsecured personal devices increase risk of compromise and data exfiltration.
72. Question 72
Main web app not updated for years — what risk?
❌ Configuration issue
❌ Insider threat
❌ Physical security
✅ Unsupported systems
Explanation: Lack of updates indicates unsupported/legacy systems with unpatched vulnerabilities.
73. Question 73
Cloud-based platform across regions — primary focus for regional laws?
✅ Regulatory and legal considerations
❌ Physical security standards
❌ Data encryption standards
❌ Incident response policies
Explanation: Regional legal/regulatory compliance (data residency, privacy) must be primary focus.
74. Question 74
Decommission laptops with sensitive client data — most important step?
✅ Use certified data destruction services
❌ Wipe using basic deletion
❌ Sell as-is
❌ Store indefinitely
Explanation: Certified destruction ensures complete data removal and compliance.
75. Question 75
Track underground threats from illegal marketplaces — which feed?
❌ Bug bounty programs
❌ Proprietary threat feed
✅ Dark web intelligence
❌ Internal system audit
Explanation: Dark web intelligence monitors illegal marketplaces and hacker forums.
76. Question 76
PAM feature to allow users access only when necessary?
❌ Password vaulting
✅ Just-in-time permissions
❌ Ephemeral credentials
❌ Least privilege
Explanation: Just-in-time grants temporary elevated access only when needed; ephemeral credentials also relevant but JIT specifically addresses on-demand access.
77. Question 77
Phone scam impersonating IT staff to steal credentials — type of social engineering?
❌ Smishing
❌ Phishing
✅ Vishing
❌ Pretexting
Explanation: Vishing uses voice calls to deceive victims.
78. Question 78
Internal audit for adherence to Sarbanes-Oxley — what assessment?
❌ External audit
✅ Compliance audit
❌ Self-assessment
❌ Attestation
Explanation: Compliance audits assess conformity to regulatory frameworks like SOX.
79. Question 79
Primary benefit of offsite backups?
❌ Reduced costs
❌ Increased recovery speed
❌ Enhanced data security
✅ Disaster recovery assurance
Explanation: Offsite backups provide assurance for recovery after site-wide disasters.
80. Question 80
Hackers deface government website to promote political agenda — motivation?
❌ Financial gain
❌ Espionage
❌ Data exfiltration
✅ Philosophical/political beliefs
Explanation: Politically-motivated defacement fits hacktivist/philosophical motives.
81. Question 81
PAM feature to ensure permissions only when needed?
❌ Ephemeral credentials
❌ Least privilege
✅ Just-in-time permissions
❌ Password vaulting
Explanation: Just-in-time grants temporary access when required, limiting standing privileges.
82. Question 82
Who should determine how customer data is collected/used/shared?
❌ Data owner
❌ Data processor
✅ Data controller
❌ Data steward
Explanation: Data controller is responsible for deciding purpose and means of processing personal data.
83. Question 83
Secure legal information during transmission — which method?
❌ Hashing
❌ Data segmentation
✅ Encryption
❌ Tokenization
Explanation: Encryption secures data in transit between systems.
84. Question 84
Encryption for sensitive transaction data stored in DB — what level of encryption protects data at rest?
❌ File-level encryption
✅ Database encryption
❌ Transport encryption
❌ Full-disk encryption
Explanation: Database-level encryption protects data at rest within a DB; full-disk also protects but DB encryption is specific.
85. Question 85
Primary goal of a compliance audit for data privacy?
❌ Assess internal controls
✅ Verify adherence to industry standards for data privacy
❌ Evaluate potential vulnerabilities
❌ Assess training programs
Explanation: Compliance audit checks whether privacy standards/regulations are being met.
86. Question 86
Frequent small disruptions with minimal impact — cost-effective strategy?
✅ Accept
❌ Avoid
❌ Mitigate
❌ Transfer
Explanation: For low-impact, frequent minor risks, acceptance may be most cost-effective.
87. Question 87
Firewall most suitable to protect web applications?
❌ Layer 4 Firewall
❌ Unified Threat Management (UTM)
❌ Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
✅ Web Application Firewall (WAF)
Explanation: WAFs specialize in protecting web applications from attacks like SQLi and XSS.
88. Question 88
Patch requires downtime that’s not possible immediately — what to do?
❌ Ignore the vulnerability
❌ Wait for scheduled downtime
✅ Implement compensating controls
❌ Alert system users
Explanation: Apply compensating controls (access restrictions, monitoring, segmentation) until patching possible.
89. Question 89
Ensuring digital signatures cannot be disputed (accountability) — which concept?
❌ Integrity
❌ Authorization
❌ Confidentiality
✅ Non-repudiation
Explanation: Non-repudiation prevents signers from denying their actions (e.g., digital signatures).
90. Question 90
Formalize how changes are managed — which governance element?
✅ Change management policies
❌ Disaster recovery policies
❌ Business continuity policies
❌ Playbooks
Explanation: Change management policies provide structured guidance for controlled infrastructure changes.
🧾 Summary Table (Q1–Q90)
Due to the length (90 items), here is a compact summary showing question number and the correct answer:
-
Nation-state
-
Spyware
-
Investigate transactions further
-
TLS
-
Regular system testing
-
Configuration drift
-
Impact analysis and backout plan
-
External compliance reporting
-
Application logs
-
Web-based attack
-
Financial gain
-
Training
-
SAML
-
Partially known environment
-
Ensure data confidentiality
-
Physical controls
-
Static code analysis
-
Data sovereignty
-
Adaptive identity verification
-
Containerization
-
RBAC
-
Clustering
-
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
-
DDoS
-
Web-based
-
Transport encryption
-
Multi-tier classification system
-
Lessons learned
-
Risk appetite
-
Lessons learned
-
Apply compensating controls / Segmentation
-
Logical segmentation
-
Honeypot
-
Vendor security audits & reviews
-
Hashing
-
Cyber-attacks on legacy components
-
Unknown environment
-
Complex service interconnections
-
Enforce security policies while allowing personal use (COPE)
-
Removable device
-
Static analysis
-
Impossible travel
-
Cloud-specific vulnerability (misconfiguration)
-
Data interception
-
Lessons learned
-
Implement temporary lockdown
-
Insider threat
-
External compliance audit
-
Data subject rights
-
Permission restrictions (access controls)
-
Fail-open (availability prioritized)
-
Right-to-audit clause
-
Physical and detective controls
-
Network Access Control (NAC)
-
Assess regulatory compliance
-
Chain of custody
-
Continuous verification
-
Data masking
-
Fines
-
Dark web intelligence
-
Alerting
-
Evidence of internal audits
-
Aggregating and analyzing logs (SIEM)
-
Lack of employee training
-
Inability to patch critical vulnerabilities (ICS)
-
Smishing
-
Service-Level Agreement (SLA)
-
Disable unnecessary services and secure configs
-
EDR/XDR
-
Something you have
-
Increased risk of data breaches
-
Unsupported systems
-
Regulatory and legal considerations
-
Certified data destruction services
-
Dark web intelligence
-
Just-in-time permissions
-
Vishing
-
Compliance audit
-
Disaster recovery assurance (offsite backups)
-
Philosophical/political beliefs (hacktivism)
-
Just-in-time permissions
-
Data controller
-
Encryption
-
Database encryption (data at rest)
-
Verify adherence to data privacy standards
-
Accept
-
Web Application Firewall (WAF)
-
Implement compensating controls
-
Non-repudiation
-
Change management policies